Latest [Dec 10, 2024] Realistic Verified CTPRP Dumps
Pass Shared Assessments CTPRP Exam Updated 125 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which statement BEST describes the methods of performing due diligence during third party risk assessments?
- A. Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour
- B. interviewing subject matter experts or control owners, reviewing compliance artifacts, and validating controls
- C. Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans
- D. Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract
Answer: B
Explanation:
Performing due diligence during third party risk assessments is a process of verifying and validating the information provided by the third parties, as well as identifying and assessing any potential risks or issues that may arise from the relationship. Due diligence methods may vary depending on the type, scope, and complexity of the third party engagement, but they generally involve the following steps123:
* Interviewing subject matter experts or control owners: This method involves engaging with the relevant stakeholders from both the organization and the third party, such as business owners, project managers, legal counsel, compliance officers, security analysts, etc. The purpose of the interviews is to gather more information about the third party's capabilities, processes, policies, performance, and challenges, as well as to clarify any questions or concerns that may arise from the questionnaire or other sources. The interviews can also help to establish rapport and trust between the parties, and to identify any gaps or discrepancies in the information provided.
* Reviewing compliance artifacts: This method involves examining the evidence or documentation that supports the third party's claims or assertions, such as certifications, accreditations, audit reports, policies, procedures, contracts, SLAs, etc. The purpose of the review is to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the artifacts, as well as to assess the level of compliance with the applicable standards, regulations, and best practices. The review can also help to identify any areas of improvement or weakness in the third party's controls or processes.
* Validating controls: This method involves testing or inspecting the actual implementation and effectiveness of the third party's controls or processes, such as security measures, quality assurance, data protection, incident response, etc. The purpose of the validation is to confirm that the controls are operating as intended and expected, and that they are sufficient to mitigate the risks or issues identified in the assessment. The validation can also help to identify any vulnerabilities or gaps in the third party's controls or processes.
The other options are not as comprehensive or accurate as the methods described above, as they may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the third party risk assessment, or they may rely on incomplete or outdated information. Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour is only one part of the validation method, and it may not be applicable or feasible for all types of third parties, such as cloud service providers or remote workers. Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans is more of a follow-up or monitoring activity, rather than a due diligence method, as it assumes that the questionnaire has already been completed and analyzed. Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract is a narrow and limited approach, as it may not capture the full scope or complexity of the third party relationship, or the dynamic and evolving nature of the risks or issues involved. References:
* Third Party Due Diligence - a vital but challenging process
* The guide to risk based third party due diligence - VinciWorks
* Third Party Risk Assessment - Checklist & Best Practices
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?
- A. Data encryption
- B. Data masking
- C. Data anonymization
- D. Data compression
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data anonymization is the process of removing or altering any information that can be used to identify an individual from a data set. This technique provides the strongest assurance that data does not identify an individual, as it makes it impossible or extremely difficult to link the data back to the original source. Data anonymization can be achieved by various methods, such as generalization, suppression, perturbation, or pseudonymization12. Data anonymization is often used for privacy protection, compliance with data protection regulations, and data sharing purposes3. References:
* 1: Data Security: Definition, Importance, and Types | Fortinet
* 2: Data Security Best Practices: Top 10 Data Protection Methods - Ekran System
* 3: Data anonymization - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which approach for managing end-user device security is typically used for lost or stolen company-owned devices?
- A. Remotely enable lost mode status on the device
- B. Deletion of data after a pre-defined number of failed login attempts
- C. Remote wipe of the device and restore to factory settings
- D. Enterprise wipe of all company data and contacts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Remote wipe is a security feature that allows an administrator or a user to remotely erase all the data and settings on a device in case it is lost or stolen. This prevents unauthorized access to sensitive information and reduces the risk of data breaches. Remote wipe is typically used for company-owned devices, as it ensures that no company data remains on the device after it is lost or stolen. Remote wipe also restores the device to its factory settings, making it unusable for the thief or finder. Remote wipe can be performed through various methods, such as using a mobile device management (MDM) solution, a cloud service, or a built-in feature of the device's operating system. References:
* 1: How to protect your company from data breaches caused by lost or stolen devices
* 2: BYOD vs Company-Owned Devices: How to Maintain Security
* 3: Lost or Stolen Business Device? Here's What to do Next
NEW QUESTION # 24
When evaluating compliance artifacts for change management, a robust process should include the following attributes:
- A. Logging, approval, back-out.
- B. Communications, approval, auditable.
- C. Approval, validation, auditable.
- D. Logging, approvals, validation, back-out and exception procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Change management is the process of controlling and documenting any changes to the scope, objectives, requirements, deliverables, or resources of a project or a program. Change management ensures that the impact of any change is assessed and communicated to all stakeholders, and that the changes are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. Compliance artifacts are the documents, records, or reports that demonstrate the adherence to the change management process and the regulatory or industry standards.
A robust change management process should include the following attributes:
* Logging: This means that any change request or proposal is recorded in a change log or a change register, along with the details of the change initiator, the change description, the change category, the change priority, the change status, and the change history. Logging helps to track and monitor the progress and outcome of each change, and to provide an audit trail for compliance purposes.
* Approvals: This means that any change request or proposal is reviewed and approved by the appropriate authority or stakeholder, such as the project manager, the sponsor, the customer, the steering committee, or the regulatory body. Approvals help to ensure that the change is justified, feasible, aligned with the project or program objectives, and acceptable to the affected parties.
* Validation: This means that any change request or proposal is verified and tested to ensure that it meets the quality standards, the functional and non-functional requirements, and the expected benefits and outcomes. Validation helps to ensure that the change is implemented correctly, effectively, and efficiently, and that it does not introduce any errors, defects, or risks.
* Back-out and exception procedures: This means that any change request or proposal has a contingency plan or a rollback plan in case the change fails, causes problems, or is rejected. Back-out and exception procedures help to minimize the negative impact of the change, and to restore the original state or the baseline of the project or program. They also help to handle any deviations or issues that may arise during the change implementation or the change review.
References:
* CTPRP Job Guide
* An Agile Approach to Change Management
* CM Overview
* Management Artifacts and its Types
* Achieving Regulatory and Industry Standards Compliance with the Scaled Agile Framework
* 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process
NEW QUESTION # 25
The set of shared values and beliefs that govern a company's attitude toward risk is known as:
- A. Risk treatment
- B. Risk culture
- C. Risk tolerance
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk culture is the term used to describe the collective way that an organization thinks about, manages, and responds to risk. It is influenced by the organization's values, beliefs, norms, and practices, as well as the external environment and stakeholders. Risk culture affects how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk issues, and how they balance risk and reward in their decision making. A strong risk culture is one that supports the organization's strategic objectives, fosters accountability and transparency, and promotes learning and improvement. A weak risk culture is one that undermines the organization's risk management framework, creates silos and conflicts, and exposes the organization to excessive or unnecessary risks. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 13, section 2.1.1
* GARP Best Practices Guidance for Third Party Risk, page 5, section 2.1
* Organizational culture | Definition, Benefits and Challenges
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which factor is less important when reviewing application risk for application service providers?
- A. The number of software releases
- B. Remote connectivity
- C. APl integration
- D. The functionality and type of data the application processes
Answer: A
Explanation:
When reviewing application risk for application service providers, the most important factors are the functionality and type of data the application processes, the remote connectivity options, and the APl integration methods. These factors determine the level of exposure, sensitivity, and complexity of the application, and thus the potential impact and likelihood of a security breach or a compliance violation. The number of software releases is less important, as it does not directly affect the application's security or functionality. However, it may indicate the maturity and quality of the software development process, which is another aspect of application risk assessment. References:
* Application Security Risk: Assessment and Modeling, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2016
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which example is typically NOT included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
- A. Identifying the criticality of applications
- B. Prioritization of business functions and processes
- C. Requiring vendor participation in testing
- D. Including any contractual or legal/regulatory requirements
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a process of determining the criticality of business activities and associated resource requirements to ensure operational resilience and continuity of operations during and after a business disruption1. A BIA is used to identify the potential impacts of disruptions on business processes, such as lost sales, delayed revenue, increased expenses, regulatory fines, or contractual penalties2. A BIA is not concerned with the probability or causes of disruptions, but rather with the effects and consequences of disruptions3. Therefore, a BIA typically does not include requiring vendor participation in testing, as this is a part of the business continuity and disaster recovery planning and implementation, not the impact analysis. Vendor participation in testing is important to validate the effectiveness and alignment of the vendor's business continuity and disaster recovery plans with the organization's objectives and expectations, but it is not a component of the BIA itself. References: 1: Using Business Impact Analysis to Inform Risk Prioritization and Response 2: Business Impact Analysis (BIA): Prepare for Anything [2024] * Asana 3: The Difference Between a Vendor's BIA and Risk Analysis - Venminder : Best Practices Guidance for Third Party Risk
NEW QUESTION # 28
During the contract negotiation process for a new vendor, the vendor states they have legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes. However, your company policy requires data return or destruction at contract termination. Which statement provides the BEST approach to address this conflict?
- A. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program
- B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier
- C. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination
- D. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best approach to address the conflict between the vendor's legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes and the company's policy to require data return or destruction at contract termination is A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination. This approach recognizes that the vendor may have valid reasons to retain some data for a certain period of time, and that the company may have flexibility to grant exceptions to its policy under certain circumstances. However, this approach also ensures that the company maintains oversight and control over the data that the vendor retains, and that the vendor continues to comply with the data safeguarding obligations, such as encryption, access control, audit, and breach notification, until the data is returned or destroyed. This approach balances the interests and risks of both parties, and minimizes the potential for data breaches, misuse, or loss.
The other approaches are not the best ways to address the conflict, as they may create more problems or risks for either party. B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier. This approach does not resolve the conflict, but rather shifts the responsibility to the company to manage the increased risk of the vendor retaining the data. Changing the risk rating may also affect the contract terms, such as pricing, service level agreements, or liability clauses, and may require renegotiation or termination of the contract. C. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception. This approach is too rigid and may not be feasible or reasonable for the vendor, especially if they have legal obligations to retain the data. This approach may also damage the relationship and trust between the parties, and may lead to disputes or litigation. D. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program. This approach is too time-consuming and costly, and may not be necessary or relevant for the conflict. Conducting an assessment may provide some assurance about the vendor's data practices, but it does not address the underlying issue of the conflicting data retention requirements. Moreover, conducting an assessment may not be possible or appropriate during the contract negotiation process, as it may require access to the vendor's systems, data, or personnel. References:
* : Best Practices for Data Destruction - ed
* : CHALLENGES AND RISKS INVOLVED WITH DATA RETENTION - DataOlogie
* : Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance
* : Ensuring Data Protection for Third Parties: Best Practices | UpGuard Blog
NEW QUESTION # 29
You are reviewing assessment results of workstation and endpoint security. Which result should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential?
- A. Disabled or blocked access to internet
- B. Use of multi-tenant laptops
- C. Use of desktop virtualization
- D. Disabled printing and USB devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Workstation and endpoint security refers to the protection of devices that connect to a network from malicious actors and exploits1. These devices include laptops, desktops, tablets, smartphones, and IoT devices. Workstation and endpoint security can involve various measures, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption, authentication, patch management, and device management1.
Among the four options, the use of multi-tenant laptops poses the greatest risk potential for workstation and endpoint security. Multi-tenant laptops are laptops that are shared by multiple users or organizations, such as in a cloud-based environment2. This means that the laptop's resources, such as memory, CPU, storage, and network, are divided among different tenants, who may have different security policies, requirements, and access levels2. This can create several challenges and risks, such as:
* Data leakage or theft: If the laptop is not properly isolated or encrypted, one tenant may be able to access or compromise another tenant's data or applications2. This can result in data breaches, identity theft, or compliance violations.
* Malware infection or propagation: If one tenant's laptop is infected by malware, such as ransomware, spyware, or viruses, it may spread to other tenants' laptops through the shared network or storage2. This can disrupt the laptop's performance, functionality, or availability, and cause damage or loss of data or applications.
* Resource contention or exhaustion: If one tenant's laptop consumes more resources than allocated, it may affect the performance or availability of other tenants' laptops2. This can result in slow response, poor user experience, or service degradation or interruption.
* Configuration or compatibility issues: If one tenant's laptop has different or conflicting settings, preferences, or applications than another tenant's laptop, it may cause errors, crashes, or compatibility problems2. This can affect the laptop's functionality, reliability, or usability.
Therefore, the use of multi-tenant laptops should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential, and require more stringent and consistent security controls, such as:
* Segmentation or isolation: The laptop should be logically or physically separated into different segments or zones for each tenant, and restrict the communication or interaction between them2. This can prevent unauthorized access or interference between tenants, and limit the impact of a security incident to a specific segment or zone.
* Encryption or obfuscation: The laptop should encrypt or obfuscate the data and applications of each tenant, and use strong encryption keys or algorithms2. This can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and applications, and prevent data leakage or theft.
* Antivirus or anti-malware: The laptop should install and update antivirus or anti-malware software, and scan the laptop regularly for any malicious or suspicious activities2. This can detect and remove any malware infection or propagation, and prevent damage or loss of data or applications.
* Resource allocation or management: The laptop should allocate or manage the resources of each tenant, and monitor the resource consumption and utilization2. This can ensure the performance or availability of the laptop, and prevent resource contention or exhaustion.
* Configuration or standardization: The laptop should configure or standardize the settings, preferences, or applications of each tenant, and ensure the compatibility or interoperability between them2. This can
* avoid errors, crashes, or compatibility issues, and improve the functionality, reliability, or usability of the laptop.
References: 1: What is Desktop Virtualization? | IBM1 2: Multitenant organization scenario and Microsoft Entra capabilities2
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which action statement BEST describes an assessor calculating residual risk?
- A. The business unit closes out the finding prior to the assessor submitting the final report
- B. The assessor recommends implementing continuous monitoring for the next 18 months
- C. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating based on changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and mitigating controls
- D. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating prior to reporting the findings to the business unit
Answer: C
Explanation:
When calculating residual risk, the best practice for an assessor is to adjust the vendor risk rating based on the changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and considering the effectiveness of mitigating controls.
Residual risk refers to the level of risk that remains after controls are applied to mitigate the initial (inherent) risk. By evaluating the findings from a third-party assessment and factoring in the mitigating controls implemented by the vendor, the assessor can more accurately determine the remaining risk level. This adjusted risk rating provides a more realistic view of the vendor's risk profile, aiding in informed decision-making regarding risk management and vendor oversight.
References:
* The concept of residual risk calculation is discussed in risk management frameworks such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management - Guidelines), which guides the assessment and treatment of risks.
* The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA outlines the process of assessing and managing risks associated with third parties, including the calculation of residual risk.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following components is NOT typically included in external continuous monitoring solutions?
- A. Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability
- B. Status updates on localized events based on geolocation
- C. Alerts on legal and regulatory actions involving the vendor
- D. Metrics that track SLAs for performance management
Answer: D
Explanation:
External continuous monitoring solutions are tools or services that provide objective and timely data on the cybersecurity posture and performance of third-party vendors. They typically include components such as:
* Status updates on localized events based on geolocation, which can alert the organization to potential disruptions or incidents affecting the vendor's operations or infrastructure in a specific region or country12.
* Alerts on legal and regulatory actions involving the vendor, which can indicate the vendor's compliance status, reputation, or liability exposure13.
* Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability, which can signal the vendor's ability to
* sustain its business operations, invest in security, or honor its contractual obligations14.
However, metrics that track SLAs for performance management are not typically included in external continuous monitoring solutions, as they are more relevant for internal monitoring and reporting. SLAs are service level agreements that define the expected quality, availability, and reliability of the vendor's services or products, as well as the penalties or remedies for non-compliance. SLAs are usually measured and reported by the vendor itself, or by a third-party auditor or assessor, based on the specific criteria and frequency agreed upon by the parties . Therefore, option C is the correct answer. References:
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 5: Program Implementation, Section 5.2: Ongoing Monitoring, p. 32
* Bitsight Continuous Monitoring, Section: Uncover hidden risks
* Best-Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk, Section: Monitor Third-Party Compliance with Regulations and Standards, p. 3
* Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk, Section: Monitor Third-Party Financial Health, p. 4
* [Third Party Risk Management Framework], Module 4: Program Components, Section 4.3: Contracting, p. 24
* [A Better Way to Manage Third-Party Risk], Section: Establish clear service level agreements (SLAs) and key performance indicators (KPIs), p. 2
NEW QUESTION # 32
Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to approve remediation plans:
- A. CISO/CIO
- B. internal Audit
- C. C&O
- D. Business Unit Relationship Owner
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, the business unit relationship owner is the primary point of contact for the third party and is responsible for ensuring that the third party meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The business unit relationship owner is also involved in the third party risk assessment process and the remediation plan approval. Therefore, a meeting should be scheduled with the business unit relationship owner before sharing the findings and remediation plans with the third party, as they have the authority and accountability to approve or reject the plans. The other options are not necessarily involved in the remediation plan approval, although they may have other roles in the third party risk management lifecycle. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 9, section 1.3.2
* The Third-Party Vendor Risk Management Lifecycle, section on Supplier Onboarding & Risk Monitoring
* Remediation vs. Mitigation, section on Remediation
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?
- A. Log retention
- B. Configuration
- C. Approvals
- D. Testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
References:
* Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
* Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.
NEW QUESTION # 34
When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?
- A. Requiring application whitelisting
- B. Limiting access by job role of business justification
- C. Monitoring device activity usage volumes
- D. Logging of remote access authentication attempts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application whitelisting is a security technique that allows only authorized applications to run on a device or network, preventing malware or unauthorized software from executing. While this can be a useful security measure, it is not directly related to remote access risk evaluation, which focuses on the security of the connection and the access rights of the remote users. The other options are more relevant to remote access risk evaluation, as they help to monitor, control, and audit the remote access activities and prevent unauthorized or malicious access. References:
* 1: Secure Remote Access: Risks, Auditing, and Best Practices
* 2: 5 Common Vulnerabilities Associated With Remote Access
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which statement reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program?
- A. The program includes mechanisms for notification to clients
- B. The program includes protocols for disclosure of information to external parties
- C. The program includes the definition of internal escalation processes
- D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
An Information Security Incident Management Program is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to prevent, detect, respond to, and recover from information security incidents. An information security incident is any event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets, systems, or services12. A formal Information Security Incident Management Program typically includes the following components12:
* The definition of internal escalation processes: This component defines the roles and responsibilities, communication channels, and reporting mechanisms for escalating and managing information security incidents within the organization. It also establishes the criteria and thresholds for determining the severity and impact of incidents, and the appropriate level of response and escalation.
* The protocols for disclosure of information to external parties: This component defines the rules and guidelines for disclosing information about information security incidents to external stakeholders, such as customers, regulators, law enforcement, media, or other third parties. It also specifies the legal and contractual obligations, the timing and frequency, the format and content, and the approval and authorization processes for disclosure.
* The mechanisms for notification to clients: This component defines the methods and procedures for notifying clients or customers who may be affected by information security incidents. It also specifies the objectives, scope, and content of notification, as well as the timing and frequency, the delivery channels, and the feedback and follow-up mechanisms.
* The processes in support of disaster recovery: This component defines the steps and actions for restoring the normal operations of the organization after a major information security incident that causes
* significant disruption or damage to the information assets, systems, or services. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities, the resources and tools, the backup and recovery plans, and the testing and validation procedures for disaster recovery.
The statement that reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. While disaster recovery is an important aspect of information security, it is not a specific component of an Information Security Incident Management Program. Rather, it is a separate program that covers the broader scope of business continuity and resilience, and may involve other types of disasters besides information security incidents, such as natural disasters, power outages, or pandemics3 . Therefore, the correct answer is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. References: 1: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide 2: Develop and Implement a Security Incident Management Program 3: Business Continuity Management vs Disaster Recovery : What is the difference between disaster recovery and security incident response?
NEW QUESTION # 36
A set of principles for software development that address the top application security risks and industry web requirements is known as:
- A. Secure code reviews
- B. Secure architecture risk analysis
- C. Security testing methodology
- D. Application security design standards
Answer: D
Explanation:
Application security design standards are a set of principles for software development that address the top application security risks and industry web requirements. They provide guidance on how to design, develop, and deploy secure applications that meet the security objectives of the organization and the expectations of the customers and regulators. Application security design standards cover topics such as secure design principles, threat modeling, encryption, identity and access management, logging and auditing, coding standards and conventions, safe functions, data handling, error handling, third-party components, and testing and validation.
Application security design standards help developers avoid common security pitfalls, reduce vulnerabilities, and enhance the quality and reliability of the software. Application security design standards also facilitate the alignment of the software development lifecycle with the third-party risk management framework, by ensuring that security requirements are defined, implemented, verified, and maintained throughout the development process. References:
* Fundamental Practices for Secure Software Development
* Secure Coding Practices
* Secure Software Development Best Practices
* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?
- A. Change at outsourcer due to M&A
- B. Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements
- C. Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)
- D. Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a change at outsourcer due to merger and acquisition (M&A) is the least likely indicator to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor. This is because the outsourcer is not the direct vendor of the organization, but rather a third party that the vendor uses to perform some of its services. Therefore, the impact of the change at the outsourcer on the vendor's performance and risk level may not be significant or immediate. However, the other indicators (A, B, and C) are more likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor, as they directly affect the vendor's operations, capabilities, and compliance status. For example:
* A change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties may introduce new risks such as geopolitical, regulatory, or cybersecurity risks that need to be evaluated and mitigated.
* A change in scope of existing work may alter the vendor's access to the organization's data or systems, which may require additional security measures and controls to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets.
* A change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements may impose new obligations or standards on the vendor that need to be verified and monitored to ensure compliance and avoid penalties or fines. References:
* How to Conduct a Successful Vendor Risk Assessment in 9 Steps, Case IQ
* Why You Need to Reassess Vendor Risk on an Ongoing Basis, ThirdPartyTrust
* Vendor Assessment and Evaluation Guide, Smartsheet
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?
- A. Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence
- B. Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk
- C. Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening
- D. Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively
Answer: C
Explanation:
This statement is false because assessing risk impact does not require an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends. These factors are relevant for assessing risk likelihood or probability, not impact. Risk impact is the potential consequence or damage that a risk event may cause to the organization or its stakeholders. Risk impact can be measured qualitatively (e.g., high, medium, low) or quantitatively (e.g., monetary value, percentage of revenue, number of customers affected). To assess risk impact, the organization needs to consider the nature and scope of the risk, the potential harm or loss, and the sensitivity or tolerance of the organization or its stakeholders to the risk. References:
* How to Manage and Measure Third-Party Risk, OneTrust Blog
* Third-party risk, Deloitte
* Assessing Risks in Third Parties, ERM - Enterprise Risk Management Initiative
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?
- A. Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis
- B. Providing a checklist for self-assessment
- C. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events
- D. Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc. However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2. Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.
The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections.
Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24
* 2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF - Avigilon
* 3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits
* [4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources - CISA, page 10
* [5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What's the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP
* [6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA
NEW QUESTION # 40
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